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The most common example of this that I can think of would be if you co-signed a mortgage to help someone buying property.   So you have  a legal obligation but no legal interest.   Is that the case?

If so, think of your situation in these terms:  why should Medicaid expend funds when (a) you apparently have sufficient funds to pay obligations under a Mortgage, but (b) you have no collateral for your expenditures.  

Medicaid would have nothing to recover since you have no title for property, but you apparently do have funds to make mortgage payments.    I think that's how Medicaid would see this situation.
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??? I am amazed that a mortgage holder would ever allow anyone to be responsible to pay the mortgage without having the security of the property as collateral. Meaning, I have never heard of someone being on the mortgage without also being on the title.

Now, you can do a “quit claim” deed to record a title removing someone from it...but...it is not a warranty deed, and the mortgage holder is in no way obligated to accept it.

depending on when the title changed...Medicaid will likely not accept it either.
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Medicaid doesn’t care about your debts, like a Mortgage.
Medicaid is all about your income & assets.

You can apply for LTC Medicaid and if your medically & financially eligible you can get LTC NHH Medicaid. But due to Medicaid copay requirements, like others have said, there will realistically be no-none-zero $ for you to ever pay that mortgage. Property will go onto foreclosure.

But a bank lending to someone who is not an owner doesn’t make sense. Mortgages are secured lending. The “securitization” is the property that $ has been lent on for you to buy. property paperwork has to list you as the lender & borrower. Unless you co-signed for someone. I’m with Katie that what you’ve described doesn’t make sense for how banks do mortgages.

So what exactly is the background on all this and why would Medicaid be a factor?
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worriedinCali Dec 2019
It actually does make sense. I know a few people that had co-signers on their mortgage but the co-signers weren’t on the title. This is the opposite but I’m on the title to our house but NOT on the mortgage. I wondering if the OP was a co-signer perhaps?
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Depending on what the Medicaid is required for, as in long term care or in home assistance or just medical care you should be aware that LTC would require that essentially all of the recipients money be paid for their share of costs and they wouldn't be able to pay for a mortgage or anything else.

Talk to the social worker and ask them these questions to be sure that you understand everything.
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Yes. Medicaid eligibility has nothing to do with whether or not you have a mortgage.
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